View Full Version : [OT] PROBLEM: Prize 1,000,000nc
This is an interesting problem I came across recently. The diagram isn't perfect but I've done my best to illustrate the situation. As promised, there will be 1,000,000nc (Terra) for first correct answer (with explanation of solution).
http://i306.photobucket.com/albums/nn279/Deno7951/traingleproblem.jpg
Mighty Max
09-02-09, 22:07
The solution can be found by the linear system
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 1 ) X = ( 65 )
\ 1 0 1 / \ 72 /
in set N.
This resolves to x = (57, 40, 25 )^t
And thus A = pi * (57^2 + 40^2 + 25^2) ~= 17197,1
Please gift the credits the next noob you meet.
edit: btw why right angled? *g* That's one info too much :p
I'm afraid that is incorrect (did you make an error? your solution is along the right lines) Double check your working out and get me the answer, and there will be one lucky noob on Terra tonight ;P
note, this is a chance for someone to slip in with a correct answer before he remedies his solution! Prize money still stands!
Mighty Max
09-02-09, 23:03
Erm yes, one should solve that system correctly and not drop a one ;)
Gah... is it...
15472.35?
Will post my ramblings if that's near correct :angel:
- hmm. having doubts now :(
16113.29? (losing confidence quickly now :p)
Mighty Max
10-02-09, 00:00
Then lets correct mine:
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 1 ) X = ( 65 )
\ 1 0 1 / \ 72 /
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 1 ) X = ( 65 )
\ 0 -1 1 / \ -25 /
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 1 ) X = ( 65 )
\ 0 0 2 / \ 40 /
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 0 ) X = ( 45 )
\ 0 0 1 / \ 20 /
/ 1 0 0 \ / 52 \
( 0 1 0 ) X = ( 45 )
\ 0 0 1 / \ 20 /
I'll leave the rest (formular above) to the noob reading up here :)
If i didnt make a stupid one again
52, 45, 20
I get those numbers!
http://www.nskill.co.uk/tria.jpg
Though I don't understand maths well enough to understand your methods, as the above daubings show :p
PS. I'm a graphics tablet convert
Mighty Max
10-02-09, 00:26
Though I don't understand maths well enough to understand your methods, as the above daubings show :p
It's the Gauss algorithm. Pretty usefull if it comes to greater systems then these :p But it's a pain if you make such stupid 0-1 = 0 mistakes like me :D
One could have done a Givens-QR or Householder transformation as well, but that would have been overkill ;)
But it's a pain if you make such stupid 0-1 = 0 mistakes like me :DSee above, where I thought 72-20=50? :D
Nymphette79
10-02-09, 01:45
Please will u all stop trying to make my brain dribble out of my ears, far too many braniac threads on here at the moment
:confused: O_o :( :mad: :confused: O_o :( :mad: :confused: O_o :( :mad:
Powerpunsh
10-02-09, 02:08
Uff mighty,
1 Question: I dont understand the way u did from part 3 to 4.
There is:
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 1 ) X = ( 65 )
\ 0 0 2 / \ 40 /
/ 1 1 0 \ / 97 \
( 0 1 0 ) X = ( 45 )
\ 0 0 1 / \ 20 /
Did you just take the half of C (because C = 2 and C =1 above) to get B and C solved?
It's simple everyone!
The answer is 42! :)
I hate maths...
Especially this ><
*hurts nobby's head...*
well i tried lol
Hmmm, well Mighty Max had the correct solution. The problem is deceptively simple once you spot that the edge lengths make up a Gaussian elimination equation. Once you done that its easy. Steven, you gave the correct answer of 16113, with correct solution (as far as I can tell from your garbled working out :P) So i'm tempted to split the money half way. Half to max for solution, and half to steve for the answer. Max's solution used a matrix method to solve it which is essentially the same as Steve's method anyway.
Hmmm, I underestimated the Neocron community's math skills! will have to find a harder problem for yous!
Mighty Max
10-02-09, 10:41
Uff mighty,
[...]
Did you just take the half of C (because C = 2 and C =1 above) to get B and C solved?
It were two "steps" at once. Normalize the 3rd row and eliminate the 3rd entry in the second row with it (by just substracting row 3 from row 2)
Stormy|Nc2
10-02-09, 10:45
1+1=2+ :p
My god that's just horrible. Respect to your brains, seriously!
I don't understand any of what's happening there...
:confused:
Powerpunsh
10-02-09, 12:31
It were two "steps" at once. Normalize the 3rd row and eliminate the 3rd entry in the second row with it (by just substracting row 3 from row 2)
Ah, Means:
2=40 so 1=20. You substracted 1 to have 1 left for C. That means 65-20 = 45 for B
2-1 = 40-20 = 20 for C
Now i get it! :D
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